laboursonline – MCQs, Mock Tests | NEET Test Series-2021 to 2022 NEET Biology MCQS Mock Test Paper 20

Which of the following shows double fertilization?

1. Angiosperms
2. Gymnosperms
3. Algae
4. All of the above

✅ Correct Answer: 1

Which of the following contains the filiform apparatus?

1. zygote
2. synergids
3. generative cell
4. egg

✅ Correct Answer: 2

Which of the following undergoes meiosis?

1. conidia
2. gemmules
3. meiocyte
4. megaspore

✅ Correct Answer: 3

Perisperm is different from endosperm because

1. it is haploid
2. it is diploid
3. it does not contain reserve food
4. it is formed by fusion of secondary nucleus and many sperms

✅ Correct Answer: 2

The pollen tube enters the embryo sac through

1. Central cell
2. Egg cell
3. Degenerated synergid
4. Persistent synergid

✅ Correct Answer: 3

Embryo sac of the angiosperms having eight nuclei is

1. only tetrasporic
2. only bisporic
3. only monosporic
4. any of the following

✅ Correct Answer: 4

Double fertilization is due to the fusion of

1. male gametes with egg and synergid
2. male gametes with egg and secondary nucleus
3. male gametes with egg and polar nuclei
4. male gametes with two eggs

✅ Correct Answer: 2

Double fertilization was discovered by

1. Leeuwenhoek
2. Hofmeister
3. Nawaschin and Guignard
4. Strasburger

✅ Correct Answer: 3

The embryo sac occurs in

1. endosperm
2. ovule
3. axis part of embryo
4. embryo

✅ Correct Answer: 2

After cross-fertilization of true-breeding tall and dwarf plants, the F1 generation was self-fertilized. The resultant plants have genotype in the ratio

1. 1:2:1 (homozygous tall : heterozygous tall : dwarf)
2. 1:2:1 (heterozygous tall : homozygous tall : dwarf)
3. 3:1 (tall : dwarf)
4. 3:1 (dwarf : tall)

✅ Correct Answer: 1

Which of the following characteristics of pea plants was not used by Mendel in his experiments?

1. seed colour
2. seed shape
3. pod length
4. flower position

✅ Correct Answer: 3

Mendel took _______ contrasting characteristics of pea plants.

1. eight
2. seven
3. six
4. five

✅ Correct Answer: 2

If both genotype and phenotype shows the same ratios of 1:2:1 in the F2 generation, it shows

1. incomplete dominance in monohybrid cross
2. complete dominance in monohybrid cross
3. dihybrid cross
4. co-dominance

✅ Correct Answer: 1

Test cross determines

1. whether two traits are linked or not
2. the genotype of F2 plant
3. whether the two species will breed successfully or not
4. number of alleles in a gene

✅ Correct Answer: 2

Genotype of dominant plant can be determined by

1. pedigree analysis
2. back cross
3. test cross
4. dihybrid cross

✅ Correct Answer: 3

Test cross is a

1. cross between two recessive homozygotes
2. cross between dominant homozygote and heterozygote
3. cross between two F1 hybrids
4. cross between an F1 hybrid and recessive homozygote

✅ Correct Answer: 4

Lack of independent assortment of two genes is due to

1. recombination
2. crossing over
3. linkage
4. repulsion

✅ Correct Answer: 3

The cross where the sources of gametes are reversed is called

1. reciprocal cross
2. reverse cross
3. dihybrid cross
4. test cross

✅ Correct Answer: 1

The genes for the seven characters chosen by Mendel are located on

1. four chromosomes
2. five chromosomes
3. six chromosomes
4. seven chromosomes

✅ Correct Answer: 1

Which of the following enzymes is non-proteinaceous?

1. deoxyribonuclease
2. ligase
3. ligase
4. lysozyme

✅ Correct Answer: 3

RNA contains Uridine, it is a

1. pyrimidine
2. purine
3. nucleotide
4. nucleoside

✅ Correct Answer: 4

Anticodon is present in

1. DNA
2. tRNA
3. rRNA
4. mRNA

✅ Correct Answer: 2

Which of the following purine bases is present in RNA?

1. Uracil
2. Thymine
3. Cytosine
4. Guanine

✅ Correct Answer: 4

Which of the following is found more widely in a cell?

1. RNA
2. DNA
3. Sphaerosomes
4. Chloroplasts

✅ Correct Answer: 1

RNA contains repeating units of

1. deoxyribonucleotides
2. ribonucleotides
3. deoxyribonucleosides
4. ribonucleosides

✅ Correct Answer: 2

Which of the following rRNAs in bacteria acts as a ribozyme as well as structural RNA?

1. 23S rRNA
2. 18S rRNA
3. 5.8S rRNA
4. 5S rRNA

✅ Correct Answer: 1

Which of the following RNAs are the most abundant in an animal cell?

1. mRNA
2. tRNA
3. miRNA
4. rRNA

✅ Correct Answer: 4

A single strand of mRNA attached to complex of ribosomes is called

1. Okazaki fragments
2. polymer
3. polysome
4. polypeptide

✅ Correct Answer: 3

Which of the following RNAs’ structure is similar to clover leaf?

1. tRNA
2. rRNA
3. mRNA
4. hnRNA

✅ Correct Answer: 1

Which of the following is one of the parts of the hindbrain?

1. hypothalamus
2. cerebellum
3. corpus callosum
4. spinal cord

✅ Correct Answer: 2

If there is an injury in the hypothalamus region of the brain, it is most likely to affect

1. regulation of body temperature
2. decision making
3. co-ordination during locomotion
4. short-term memory

✅ Correct Answer: 1

A cranial nerve with the highest number of branches

1. Facial nerve
2. Trigeminal nerve
3. Vagus nerve
4. Both (b) and (c)

✅ Correct Answer: 2

Afferent neurons carry nerve impulses from

1. CNS to muscles
2. CNS to receptors
3. receptors to CNS
4. effector organs to CNS

✅ Correct Answer: 3

The cranial nerve that regulates the heartbeat

1. VII
2. VIII
3. IX
4. X

✅ Correct Answer: 4

Which of the following is another name for the third ventricle of the brain?

1. diocoel
2. paracoel
3. rhinocoel
4. metacoel

✅ Correct Answer: 1

Nissl’s granules present in the neurons are made up of

1. protein
2. ribosome
3. RNA
4. DNA

✅ Correct Answer: 2

Which of the following is a part of the rhombencephalon?

1. Medulla
2. Substantia nigra
3. Thalamus
4. Temporal lobe

✅ Correct Answer: 1

A neuron that carries information from the peripheral nervous system to the central nervous system is

1. afferent neuron
2. efferent neuron
3. both
4. none

✅ Correct Answer: 1

Which of the following parts of the brain controls the body temperature and urge of eating?

1. thalamus
2. cerebellum
3. pons
4. hypothalamus

✅ Correct Answer: 4

Which of the following immunoglobulins makes the largest percentage in breast milk?

1. IgM
2. IgD
3. IgG
4. IgA

✅ Correct Answer: 4

Transplanted graft may be rejected due to

1. cell-mediated immune response
2. humoral immune response
3. innate immune response
4. passive response

✅ Correct Answer: 1

Oral polio drops contain

1. harvested antibodies
2. activated pathogens
3. attenuated pathogens
4. gamma globulins

✅ Correct Answer: 3

Antibodies are

1. prostaglandins
2. steroids
3. lipoproteins
4. glycoproteins

✅ Correct Answer: 4

Interferons are

1. antibiotic proteins
2. antiviral proteins
3. antigen proteins
4. all of the above

✅ Correct Answer: 2

Globulins of the blood plasma are responsible for

1. defence mechanisms
2. blood clotting
3. oxygen transport
4. osmotic balance

✅ Correct Answer: 1

Which of the following antibodies is predominantly present in tears, saliva and mucous

1. IgM
2. IgG
3. IgE
4. IgA

✅ Correct Answer: 4

The class of antibodies, which can cross placenta is

1. IgD
2. IgA
3. IgG
4. IGM

✅ Correct Answer: 3

Antigen binding sites are present in

1. Fab regions of an antibody
2. Fc region of an antibody
3. only in the light chain
4. only in the heavy chain

✅ Correct Answer: 1

Type I hypersensitivity involves

1. IgD
2. IgM
3. IgE
4. IgG

✅ Correct Answer: 3

Flagellated cells, which line the spongocoel in Poriferans are known as

1. ostia
2. mesenchymal cells
3. choanocytes
4. oscula

✅ Correct Answer: 3