Home
MCQS
NEET Test Series-2021 to 2022 MCQ Quiz Hub
NEET Biology MCQS Mock Test Paper 25
Choose a topic to test your knowledge and improve your NEET Test Series-2021 to 2022 skills
1. The Respiratory quotient (R.Q.) of C39 H72 O6 is
0.72
2.71
1.32
3.25
2. In anaerobic respiration, the Respiratory quotient is
greater than one
one
zero
infinity
3. What will the respiratory quotient of the mixture be when equal quantities of groundnut seeds and germinating maize is taken
infinity
greater than one
less than one
one
4. The respiratory quotient of a plant structure is dependent on the substrate’s nature that is
metabolized
catabolized
oxidized
reduced
5. The respiratory quotient in succulent plants is always less than one. The reason is
complete reduction
complete oxidation
incomplete reduction
incomplete oxidation
6. The Respiratory quotient in germinating seeds is
zero
less than one
greater than one
one
7. The energy yield due to the outcome of total oxidation of 1 molecule of glucose during the cellular respiration is enough to convert
38 molecules of ADP to 38 molecules of ATP
36 molecules of ADP to 36 molecules of ATP
30 molecules of ADP to 30 molecules of ATP
32 molecules of ADP to 32 molecules of ATP
8. Carbohydrate’s respiratory quotient is
equal to five
less than unit
greater than unity
unity
9. Proton concentration is highest in which part of the chloroplast?
Stroma
Intermembrane space
Lumen of thylakoids
Antennae complex
10. Cyclic photophosphorylation is associated with the production of
ATP
NADPH
O2
All of the above
11. During cellular respiration, chemiosmosis occurs in
Chloroplast
Mitochondria
Peroxisome
Nucleoplasm
12. Which of the following is necessary for chemiosmosis?
Proton gradient
Membrane
Proton pump
All of the above
13. Which of the following processes is responsible for generating a proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane?
Proton carrier transport H+ from stroma to lumen
Splitting of water on the inner side of the membrane
NADP reductase enzyme present at the stroma side, removes proton by reducing NADP+
All of the above
14. Proton concentration is highest in which part of the mitochondria?
Matrix
Inner membrane
Outer membrane
Intermembrane space
15. Which part of ATP synthase forms the transmembrane channel?
CF0
CF1
Both
None of the above
16. The ATP synthesised by ATP synthase present in the thylakoid membrane is released towards
stroma
lumen
inner membrane
outer membrane
17. ATP synthesis by ATP synthase is driven by the movement of
protons
NADPH
electrons
All of the above
18. Who proposed the chemiosmotic hypothesis of ATP synthesis?
Francis Crick
H G Khorana
Peter Mitchell
J D Watson
19. What stops a new chromosome variant appearing as a unique mutation from increasing in frequency?
It is because polyploidy is a rare process
it will interbreed with majority form causing heterozygotes to be inferior
allopatric speciation does not necessitate reinforcement
all of these
20. This is the key to speciation of populations
reproductive health
reproductive isolation
population growth
extinction
21. This can cause a steeper cline
Extensive migration
Strong selection against heterozygotes
Stabilizing selection throughout the region
All of these
22. The reproductive isolating factor occurring when a sperm and an egg are incompatible is
temporal isolation
ecological isolation
gametic isolation
behavioural isolation
23. Species, the biological concept is applicable only to the breeding populations
that are adequately large to constitute a viable reproductive group
that are adequately uniform to be recognized by observation
in experimental conditions
in nature
24. Which of the following is included in the concept of genetic bottlenecks?
a loss of genetic diversity in descendent populations
sharing genetic material between two populations
extensive gene flow
increased ability to resist new diseases
25. This type of speciation enables production of hybrids between two species
allopatric speciation
parapatric speciation
bottleneck
sympatric
26. This is not a reproductive isolating mechanism
ecological isolation
individual isolation
temporal isolation
behavioural isolation
27. In this kind of speciation, evolution can be expected to be faster whilst the speciation between the speciating events
Peripheral speciation
Hybridization
Sympatric speciation
Both (b) and (c)
28. A new species emerges from this geographic range of its ancestor as per this theory of speciation
Sympatric speciation
Parapatric speciation
Allopatric speciation
None of these
29. Lymphocytes are of two types, they are
T-cells and erythrocytes
Erythrocytes and Platelets
T-cells and Platelets
T-cells and B-cells
30. Which of these immune cells are able to quickly respond post any subsequent encounter with the same antigen?
helper T cells
memory cells
plasma cells
basophil
31. Basophils, eosinophils and Neutrophils are referred to as
Platelets
Astocytomas
Granulocytes
Buffers
32. Cytotoxic T cells destroy the target cells
through injection of tumor necrosis factor
by phagocytosis
through insertion of perforins into the target’s membrane
by releasing oxidizing agents
33. This is not a cardinal sign of inflammation
redness
heat
swelling and pain
opsonization
34. _____ are released in the respiratory burst having the potent of cell-killing ability
histamines
neutrophils
free radicals
platelets-derived growth factors
35. The phenomena that initiates when a helper T cell binds with a class II MHC protein on a displaying cell is referred to as
T cell proliferation
costimulation
self-antigen recognition
antigen proliferation
36. The lymphocytes which can develop immunocompetence in the thymus is
B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
NK cells
None of these
37. An immune response when provoked by a nonself particle is known as
immunoglobulin
antibody
antigen
interferon
38. The only blood cells which are not viewed as a part of the immune system are
fat cells
glial cells
osteocytes
red blood cells
39. This phenomena can be induced in those responsible for the horizontal elements of this phylogeny
mitosis
point mutations
S phase of the cell cycle
endosymbiosis
40. If cladistics were used to build a phylogenetic tree of cats, this would be the most appropriate outgroup
tiger
leopard
wolf
domestic cat
41. To construct a phylogenetic tree in order to apply parsimony, choose
tree with fewest branch points
tree representing fewest evolutionary changes either in morphology or DNA sequences
tree in which branch points are based on as many shared characters possible
tree assuming all evolutionary changes with equal probability
42. This is used to know the phylogeny
mRNA
rRNA
DNA
none of these
43. On the basis of cladistics, this eukaryotic kingdom is polyphyletic and hence unacceptable
Monera
Protista
Animalia
Fungi
44. Possessing four appendages when comparing mammals with birds is
a character used to sort bird species
example of analogy rather than homology
a shared derived character
a shared ancestral character
45. Pick the incorrect statement concerning the terminologies of phylogenetics
branches are the lines in the tree
tips of the branches have long lost sequences or species
node indicate inferred ancestor of extant taxa
connecting point joining two adjacent branches is a node
46. This is not a vestigial organ in man
coccyx
nails
third molar
homologous
47. This is incorrect about the merits of molecular data for Phylogenetics study
sampling bias is involved
with the help of molecular data more robust and clear-cut phylogenetic tree can be constructed
much easier to obtain in comparison to fossil records
more in number compared to fossil records
48. This enzyme catalyzes the transfer of a phosphoryl group from ATP to glucose
Hexokinase
Phosphoglucose isomerase
Aldolase
Phosphoglucose mutase
49. Glycolysis is the conversion of
Fructose into phosphoenolpyruvate
Fructose into pyruvate
Glucose into phosphoenolpyruvate
Glucose into pyruvate
50. The EMP pathway in eukaryotes usually takes place in
nucleus
lysosome
Golgi apparatus
cytosol
Submit